In Revelation 7.14 John sees a great multitude of people praising God. They are standing before the Throne and they are wearing white robes. John doesn’t know their identity so an Elder tells John that they have come ‘out of the great tribulation.’
Does ‘the great tribulation’ refer to a specific period or event, or is it a general term? Theologians differ as to the meaning of this phrase. Some see it as a specific -7 year period of time that precedes the coming of Christ. Others see it as a general term that refers to the opposition that God’s followers face while on earth.
My opinion is that the great 'tribulation’ in 7.14 is a general term. This same word is found in 1.9, in 2.9 and 10, and again in 2.22. Each time the word is used in Revelations it refers generically to the sufferings that God’s people endure. The word ‘tribulation’ doesn’t appear again in the book of Revelations.
God is pouring his wrath upon the world. His wrath is seen in the Seals, the Trumpets and the Bowls. During this time the forces of this world are rising up and opposing God and his people. I believe that the phrase ‘great tribulation’ of 7.14 is referring to this period of time prior to Christ’s final return.
What about your thoughts on this phrase and its meaning?
6 comments:
I think I'm getting confused. Do you mean that the tribulation is a period of suffering but not a defined period of time? Then the 7 (years), is a symbolic number?
In my opinion, the term 'tribulation' that is found in 7.14 is a generic term. This word is only found 4 other times in the entire book of Revelation and each time it is employed it refers to a general time of suffering and affliction.
How does this opinion affect your view of the Tribulation?
Is the reference to the tribulation in Matthew 24:21 also the same generic term?
Doesn't Daniel seem to point to a more specific time period?rnmaddl ncoms
Great question Jack... Here is where Eschatology can become difficult. Matthew 24.21 can refer to the fall of Jerusalem or it can refer to a future time of suffering and persecution. Scholars are divided and usually will interpret the text based upon their presuppositions. Certainly Daniel 12 and Joel 2 talk about the end of time. But do these two OT passages refer to a specific 7 year period or to a general time of suffering? In my opinion, we just may be stretching the text somewhat to try and make it claim a specific 7 years period.
It seems to me that the Bible is specifically referring to a 7 year time period when it talks about the Tribulation. Daniel 9:27 says that the Antichrist will make a covenant with Israel for "one seven"' meaning 7 years, but that he will break that covenant in the middle of it. Daniel is very specific in saying that there will be "seven sevens and sixty- two sevens" (483 years) prior to the Tribulation, then is more vague about the length of the "times of the Gentiles" which interrupts his 490 years in verse 24. That leaves 7 years for the Tribulation.
If I understood correctly, the guest speaker last Sunday said he thought that God was sending the plagues of Revelation 8-9 out of love for us. I would have to disagree with that. Jesus came to earth the first time out of love, but He will come the second time in judgment "such as has never been seen before".
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